ITA 2025 FINAL UPC

Question 1

Why the cruising flight levels in China are given in meters and
not following the ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organisation) rule with flight levels defined in hundreds of feet?

Accepted Answer

Because the ICAO can only issue recommendations, and each state is sovereign to legislate as it wishes

Question 2

17. In the North Atlantic Tracks - Organised Track System (NATOTS) the semicircular rule (odd flight levels eastbound, even
westbound) is not applied. What is the principal reason why
any flight level may be assigned to either eastbound or westbound tracks?

Accepted Answer

The eastbound and westbound flows are laterally separated by distinct, non-crossing tracks.

Question 3

18. The Transition Altitude differs from the Transition Level in that
the Transition Altitude is:

Accepted Answer

a fixed altitude published in the AIP

Question 4

19. Which parameter is most frequently used to decide the lateral
boundary between two adjacent ATS (air traffic services) sectors?

Accepted Answer

(a) The geographic location of converging or diverging traffic flows.

Question 5

20. What is an airspace opening scheme?

Accepted Answer

(b) It defines the sequence of different sector configurations planned along the day.

Question 6

21. Who and when is in charge to design the shape and size of an
ATS sector?

Accepted Answer

(c) a team of engineers and air traffic controllers of the ANSP, many months in advance, after performing a thorough study checking the safety, capacity and efficiency of the operations.

Question 7

22. During a summer afternoon, cumulonimbus cells block large portions of an en-route ATS sector. Which of the following answers
best explains why the sector’s declared hourly capacity may need
to be cut by 40–60%?

Accepted Answer

(b) Traffic is funnelled into narrow weather-free corridors, increasing controller occupied time per aircraft and the number of potential conflicts in these corridors.

Question 8

23. During a summer thunderstorm that closes one runway at
Barcelona-El Prat, the EUROCONTROL Network Manager
(NM) issues a ground-holding ATFM regulation aimed to regulate IFR approaches to Barcelona. To which flights is this regulation applied?

Accepted Answer

(d) To all flights taking-off any airport of a NM member or cooperating state during the regulation time window, even if their departure airport itself has no weather issues, and whose destination is Barcelona.

Question 9

24. Which of the following definition is correct, in the context of an
ATFM regulation?
(a) Level capping: capping the departure flow by imposing a
minimum level of separation between successive take-offs.
(b) Level capping: holding stack with multiple aircraft placed
at successive flight levels prior to landing.
(c) Ground holding: holding stack with multiple aircraft
placed at successive flight levels prior to landing.
(d) Ground holding: aircraft take-off delayed until a specific
time window.

Accepted Answer

d

Question 10

25. Which of the following statements correctly describes the main
difference between an IATA “schedule slot” and an ATFM slot?
(a) An IATA slot is a strategic permission allocated months in
advance giving an airline the right to schedule a landing
or take-off in a specific time window for an entire season,
whereas an ATFM slot is a tactical restriction issued on
the day of operation that adjusts a flight’s take-off.
(b) Both IATA slots and ATFM slots are tactical measures issued on the day of the flight; the only difference is that
IATA slots apply only to arrivals and ATFM slots only to
departures.
(c) IATA slots are issued by air navigation service providers,
while ATFM slots are issued by airport slot coordinators.
(d) IATA slots may delay a flight, but ATFM slots never impose delay.

Accepted Answer

a

Question 11

26. An airspace sector in the middle of French airspace area has been
regulated and its maximum capacity has been set to 12 aircraft
per hour. The regulation has been issued at 10h00 UTC (universal time coordinated) and the computed assisted slot allocation
(CASA) algorithm has been executed to regulate the demand in
the concerned sector between 12h00 and 13h00 UTC. The Table
below contains the list of flights that are expected to cross that
sector during this period of time. For each flight, the table shows
its origin airport, the estimated take-off time (ETOT) and the
estimated time over (ETO) the concerned sector (all times are
UTC). What would be the delay assigned by CASA to EZY543?
Flight Origin ETOT ETO
VLG123 London H. 11h10 12h01
EZY543 Milano 11h00 12h02
AFR14 Dublin 09h45 12h03
RYR666 Frankfurt 10h50 12h06
EZY741 Barcelona 10h07 12h07
UAE25 Dubai 07h20 12h21
IBE134 Paris Orly 12h05 12h23
UAE12 London 11h31 12h24
BAW111 Manchester 11h30 12h47
DLH77 Milano 12h30 12h48
AZA999 Moscow 10h15 12h51
(a) No delay
(b) 2 minutes.
(c) 3 minutes.
(d) 8 minutes.

Accepted Answer

d

Question 12

27. Regarding the same ATFCM regulation described in the question (and table) above. What will be the controlled take-off time
(CTOT) for EZY741?
(a) 10h20
(b) 10h25
(c) 12h20
(d) 12h25

Accepted Answer

b

Question 13

28. Regarding the same ATFCM regulation described in the question (and table) above. What will be the controlled take-off time
(CTOT) for BAW111?
(a) 11h30
(b) 11h42
(c) 12h47
(d) This aircraft is exempt of the regulation.

Accepted Answer

a

Question 14

29. Regarding the same ATFCM regulation described in the question (and table) above. What will be the controlled time-over
(CTO) for UAE12?
(a) 11h31
(b) 11h42
(c) 12h35
(d) This aircraft is exempt of the regulation.

Accepted Answer

c

Question 15

30. Regarding the same ATFCM regulation described in the question (and table) above. What will be the controlled time-over
(CTO) for AZA999?
(a) 11h31
(b) 12h55
(c) 13h00
(d) This aircraft is exempt of the regulation

Accepted Answer

d

Question 16

31. Regarding the same ATFCM regulation described in the question (and table) above. What would be a valid take-off time for
RYR666 from an ATFCM point of view?
(a) 10h50
(b) 10h52
(c) 11h02
(d) 11h10

Accepted Answer

c

Question 17

32. Regarding the same ATFCM regulation described in the question
(and table) above. If the first slot (slot #1) is given at 12h00,
which aircraft will take slot #5?
(a) This slot will not be used by any aircraft.
(b) IBE134.
(c) UAE25.
(d) RYR666.

Accepted Answer

c

Question 18

33. Regarding the same ATFCM regulation described in the question
(and table) above. If the first slot (slot #1) is given at 12h00,
which aircraft will take slot #9?
(a) This slot will not be used by any aircraft.
(b) UAE12.
(c) BAW111.
(d) DLH77.

Accepted Answer

a

Question 19

34. Comparative studies show that the ANSP unit economic cost
(e.g. EUR per IFR flight-hour) of air navigation service provision is lower in the United States of America (U.S.A.) than in
Europe. Which explanation best accounts for this difference?
(a) U.S.A. route charges are deliberately set higher than in Europe, so greater revenue per flight automatically decreases
the measured unit cost.
(b) The U.S.A. is served by a single nationwide ANSP (the
FAA), giving economies of scale and eliminating crossborder duplication of support functions.
(c) European ANSPs deploy more advanced CNS/ATM technology, increasing efficiency and therefore lowering their
unit cost relative to the U.S.
(d) Europe handles significantly more IFR traffic than the
United States, so fixed costs are spread over a larger base
and unit cost is naturally lower.

Accepted Answer

b

Question 20

35. The performance indicator (PI) ANSP unit economic cost (e.g.
EUR per IFR flight-hour) to which ICAO key performance area
(KPA) belongs?
(a) Capacity.
(b) Environmental cost.
(c) Cost-effectiveness.
(d) Affordability.

Accepted Answer

c

Question 21

36. In a high-density Terminal Manoeuvring Area (TMA), controllers often extend downwind legs and impose speed-control
segments at constant altitude to compress spacing on final,
instead of clearing aircraft for continuous-descent operations
(CDO). From an ICAO ATM-performance viewpoint, which
statement best describes the resulting trade-off?
(a) It improves overall efficiency thanks to smoother sequencing, yet sacrifices capacity compared with CDO streams.
(b) It improves the environmental footprint by lowering total emissions while leaving capacity essentially unchanged.
(c) It improves airport capacity but reduces safety, because
tighter spacing heightens wake-vortex risk.
(d) It improves airport capacity but reduces flight efficiency
by adding track miles, trip time and fuel burn.

Accepted Answer

d

Question 22

37. At San Francisco airport, close-parallel approaches allow simultaneous use of runways 28L/R only in visual meteorological conditions (VMC). When conditions deteriorate to IMC, simultaneous approaches are suspended and landing is limited to a single
runway. From an ICAO ATM-performance standpoint, which
statement best captures the trade-off created by this rule?
(a) In order to preserve the mandated target level of safety,
capacity is reduced by roughly 50%.
(b) Safety is slightly degraded, but still at acceptable levels,
and the overall predictability improves as all traffic follows an identical ILS track.
(c) ANSP cost-efficiency rises because the lower controller
workload and fewer runway incursions during IMC operations.
(d) Overall flight efficiency improves, since single-runway
IMC operations supposedly allow straighter approach
paths and less vectoring.

Accepted Answer

a

Question 23

38. Which of the following services does NOT belong to the ICAO
definition of Air Traffic Services (ATS)?
(a) Air traffic control service.
(b) Flight information service.
(c) Meteorological service for air navigation.
(d) Alerting service.

Accepted Answer

d

Question 24

39. The flight information service (FIS) is specifically required to
provide an aircraft with:
(a) Collision-avoidance advisories generated by ACAS.
(b) Significant weather changes along the route of flight.
(c) Detailed customs procedures at the destination aerodrome.
(d) Passenger connecting-flight schedules.

Accepted Answer

b

Question 25

40. At an aerodrome with separate arrival and departure ATIS
broadcasts, which piece of information must appear in both messages?
(a) Transition level in use.
(b) The QNH at the airport.
(c) Departure frequency assignment.
(d) Estimated taxi-in times to the gates

Accepted Answer

b

Question 26

41. Airspace Class E provides which combination of services to IFR
and VFR flights?
(a) IFR: Traffic Information Service only. – VFR: no ATS services.
(b) IFR: Traffic Information and Alert Services. – VFR:
mandatory continuous two-way radio contact.
(c) IFR: Air Traffic Control service (with respect to other
IFR). – VFR: Traffic Information if possible.
(d) IFR and VFR: identical separation and clearance requirements.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 27

42. Imagine an approach controller in a TMA sector of class ”D”.
EC-DRV is a flight under VFR, while ICC01 is a flight under
IFR. ICC01 is the only flight under IFR at that moment in that
sector. Which of the following radiotelephony messages is most
likely coming from the air traffic controller?
(a) EC-DRV due to traffic, turn heading two two zero.
(b) Cartografic 01 due to traffic, turn heading two two zero.
(c) EC-DRV report at 5 miles from SLL VOR.
(d) Cartografic 01 report at 5 miles from SLL VOR.

Accepted Answer

D

Question 28

43. In a sector that applies the planner/tactical controller concept,
which task is primarily the planner controller’s responsibility?
(a) Issuing heading and speed instructions to aircraft.
(b) Providing traffic information directly to aircraft inside the
sector.
(c) Coordinating longitudinal separation and transfer conditions with adjacent sectors.
(d) Reacting to short-term conflict alerts (STCA) with immediate instructions.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 29

44. Which scenario most typically necessitates a Letter of Agreement
(LoA) between two air traffic control units?
(a) Publishing RNAV approaches at an aerodrome.
(b) Coordinating radar transmitter frequencies to avoid interference.
(c) Defining transfer-of-control points and flight-level restrictions between adjacent area control centers.
(d) Closing a runway temporarily for maintenance work.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 30

45. Which is the radio-telephony callsign of a flight labelled as
AZA69 in an ATC radar screen?
(a) Alpha Zulu Alpha Six Niner
(b) Air France Six Niner
(c) Alitalia Six Niner
(d) Europa Six Niner

Accepted Answer

C

Question 31

46. Which is the radio-telephony callsign of a flight labelled as
BAW142 in an ATC radar screen?
(a) Bravo Alpha Whiskey One hundred and forty-two
(b) Brussels One Four Two
(c) Speedbird One Four Two
(d) British Airways One Four Two

Accepted Answer

C

Question 32

47. Imagine you are an ATC of an approach dependency where procedural control is applied. Which of the following potential radiotelephony messages is correct?
(a) Speedbird Two Four, cleared to ILS approach runway One
Three.
(b) Speedbird Two Four, for separation turn left heading Two
Two Zero.
(c) Speedbird Two Four, cleared to land runway One Three,
winds calm.
(d) Speedbird Two Four, report when turning to base leg.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 33

48. Imagine you are an ATC of an approach dependency where procedural control is applied. Which of the following potential radiotelephony messages is NOT correct?
(a) Vueling One Five Three, with QNH One Zero One Five,
descent to Five Thousand feet.
(b) Vueling One Five Three, hold in OKETA IAF as published.
(c) Vueling One Five Three, for your information a Cessna one
seven two has reported point Sierra Whiskey five minutes
ago at two thousand feet.
(d) Vueling One Five Three, cleared to Paris Charles de Gaulle
as filed. Initial climb to six thousand, squawk one zero two
five.

Accepted Answer

D

Question 34

49. One of the main operational advantages expected from the implementation of CPDLC (Controller-Pilot Data Link Communications) in busy continental airspace is:
(a) Automatic transmission of position reports to airline operations centres.
(b) Reduction of VHF voice-channel occupancy, enabling more
efficient frequency management.
(c) Provision of real-time weather-radar images to the cockpit
via satellite link.
(d) Replacement of secondary-surveillance-radar interrogations with autonomous broadcast surveillance.

Accepted Answer

B

Question 35

50. Which ground-based radio-navigation aid provides distance information to the pilot but no bearing (azimuth) indication?
(a) VOR
(b) NDB
(c) DME
(d) ILS localizer

Accepted Answer

C

Question 36

51. Which GNSS augmentation system provides differential corrections and integrity messages via geostationary satellites to a wide
geographical area, enabling en-route and approach navigation
without local ground equipment at every airport?
(a) GBAS
(b) SBAS
(c) ABAS
(d) GALILEO

Accepted Answer

B

Question 37

52. Which GNSS augmentation system relies solely on equipment
and algorithms carried on the aircraft (such as RAIM) to detect
and mitigate GNSS errors, without needing external correction
signals from satellites or ground stations?
(a) GBAS
(b) SBAS
(c) ABAS
(d) GALILEO

Accepted Answer

C

Question 38

53. Compared with ADS-B, what is the key operational feature of
ADS-C?
(a) Position reports are sent through a point-to-point data-link
contract with ATC instead of being continuously broadcast
to all receivers.
(b) It determines aircraft position using secondary radar
echoes rather than primary radar echoes.
(c) It requires ground radar to interrogate the aircraft’s Mode
S transponder once every minute.
(d) Its messages are relayed exclusively through low-Earthorbit (LEO) satellites.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 39

54. An aircraft is flying a base leg when
(a) it flies (approximately) parallel to the landing runway in
an approach procedure.
(b) it flies (approximately) perpendicular to the landing runway in an approach procedure.
(c) it flies the inbound leg of a standard holding pattern.
(d) it flies the first leg of the missed approach procedure.

Accepted Answer

B

Question 40

55. If the visibility is not good enough for visual flight, then...
(a) we are in VMC and must fly under IFR.
(b) we are in VMC and must fly under VFR.
(c) we are in IMC and must fly under VFR.
(d) we are in IMC and must fly under IFR.

Accepted Answer

D

Question 41

56. Imagine you are in charge of designing the new visual arrival
procedure for VFR traffic to Sabadell aerodrome. You want to
specify in the chart a reporting fix (waypoint). Which of the
following statements is correct?
(a) You will use the intersection of the corresponding radial
and distance from Sabadell VOR/DME at the fix coordinates.
(b) You will use a visible landmark, such as a castle, a town
or a visible antenna, nearby the fix coordinates.
(c) You will use the intersection of the corresponding radials
from Sabadell VOR and Barcelona VOR at the fix coordinates.
(d) All the answers are correct

Accepted Answer

B

Question 42

57. What is the cruise phase?
(a) The phase of the flight after the whole climb where the
aircraft is at a constant altitude.
(b) The phase of the flight that follows the departure procedure.
(c) The phase of the flight that precedes the arrival.
(d) All answers are correct.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 43

58. Who is responsible to check that the positioning geometry is good
enough to fly an RNAV DME/DME procedure?
(a) the procedure designer.
(b) the air traffic controller.
(c) the pilot in command.
(d) the DME receiver.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 44

59. Who is responsible to check that the positioning geometry is good
enough to fly an RNAV GNSS procedure?
(a) the procedure designer.
(b) the air traffic controller.
(c) the pilot in command.
(d) the GNSS receiver.

Accepted Answer

D

Question 45

60. Who decides if an IFR procedure is RNAV or conventional?
(a) The aircraft operator.
(b) The air traffic controller.
(c) The procedure designer.
(d) The aircraft manufacturer.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 46

61. Which of the following systems can provide a RNAV functionality?
(a) VOR/DME.
(b) DME/DME.
(c) GNSS.
(d) all the answers are correct.

Accepted Answer

D

Question 47

62. A circling to approach...
(a) is the same than a non-precision approach.
(b) is the same than an APV approach.
(c) is an approach that cannot be considered as a straight-in
approach.
(d) is only for approaches where the final approach segment
has a miss-alignment of 15 degrees or more.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 48

63. An APV is a:
(a) an approach with vertical guidance but with navigation
performance worse than precision approaches.
(b) a RNAV non precision approach.
(c) a circling to approach.
(d) a visual approach.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 49

64. When executing an instrumental approach procedure, the pilot
must verify two basic criteria in order to decide whether the landing can be performed safely or not: the so-called landing minima.
These two criteria are:
(a) VIS and RVR.
(b) A minimum altitude (MDA or DA) and some minimum
visibility conditions (VIS or RVR).
(c) Straight-in approach and circling to approach conditions.
(d) FAP and MAPt.

Accepted Answer

B

Question 50

65. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The aircraft operator must compute and publish the OCA
in the charts used by their pilots.
(b) The aircraft operator must compute and publish the MDA
in the charts used by their pilots.
(c) The appropriate national administration must compute
and publish the MDA in the AIP charts.
(d) The appropriate national administration must compute a
lower bound for the MDA and publish it in the AIP charts.

Accepted Answer

B

Question 51

66. In a Localizer only approach procedure, the decision to land or
to execute a missed approach must be taken, at the latest...
(a) when reaching the MDA.
(b) when reaching the DA.
(c) when reaching the OCA.
(d) when reaching the MAPt.

Accepted Answer

D

Question 52

67. The MAPt can be defined...
(a) above a VOR.
(b) at the intersection of an NDB course and a DME arc.
(c) at a given time after overflying the FAF.
(d) all answers are correct.

Accepted Answer

D

Question 53

68. A racetrack procedure...
(a) is a type of initial approach segment.
(b) is a type of holding pattern.
(c) could be, for instance, a 45/180 procedure turn.
(d) is when an aircraft uses an active runway to taxi in the opposite direction from which it will take-off or has landed

Accepted Answer

A

Question 54

69. London Heathrow is one of the busiest airports in Europe and
has only two runways. Hence, maximising airport capacity is a
priority. In this context, which of the following statements is
correct?
(a) ATC in London terminal airspace make an intensive use
of continuous descent and continuous climb operations in
order to expedite the flow of aircraft.
(b) ATC in London terminal airspace make an intensive use of
radar vectoring when sequencing and merging aircraft in
the arrival flows.
(c) ATC in London terminal airspace make an intensive use of
procedural control in order to expedite the flow of aircraft.
(d) Aircraft separation is reduced in London terminal airspace
leading to a slight decrease in safety when operating under
IMC.

Accepted Answer

B

Question 55

70. Which of the following items highly depends on the CNS (communications, navigation and surveillance) infrastructure available?
(a) The design of ATS sectors.
(b) the on-board non-cooperative collision avoidance systems.
(c) the international radiotelephony alphabet.
(d) the ATFM slot allocation algorithm.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 56

71. What separation procedure is mainly used in oceanic airspace?
(a) Radar separation.
(b) Self separation.
(c) Procedural separation.
(d) TCAS-only separation.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 57

72. In the context of ATC, What is the wake turbulence separation?
(a) The distance between the two wake vortices (approximately the wing-span) generated by an aeroplane.
(b) The minimum distance that shall be kept between aircraft
and thunderstorm cells or turbulence areas.
(c) The minimum distance that shall be kept between two aircraft to ensure the wake vortex produced by an aircraft
is not dangerous for another aircraft that will eventually
cross this wake.
(d) The minimum separation between two aircraft taking off
simultaneously from parallel runways.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 58

73. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) Radar vectoring is a useful technique to sequence and
merge arrival traffic flows, while maintaining high levels
of capacity.
(b) Radar vectoring is a useful technique to maintain separation in case of a potential conflict between two aircraft.
(c) Radar vectoring requires a constant data-link communication between ground and air.
(d) Radar vectoring can only be applied when providing radar
control.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 59

74. What is the STCA (short term conflict alert)
(a) It is the future version of the MTCD (medium term conflict
detection), where conflicts will be detected in much closer
(and challenging) situations.
(b) It is a flight data processing system designed to warn the
ATC of potential conflict (and probable loss of separation)
between aircraft in a time horizon extending up to 20 minutes.
(c) It is a flight data processing system designed to warn the
ATC of any situation where the minimum separation distance between aircraft is, or is predicted to be violated
within a time horizon around 2 minutes.
(d) It is a particular ACAS (airborne collision avoidance system) implementation.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 60

75. What is the TCAS (traffic-alert and collision avoidance system)?
(a) It is the future version of the transponder mode C, where
a comprehensive set of information is transmitted from the
aircraft that will enhance surveillance systems.
(b) It is a flight data processing system designed to warn the
ATC of potential conflict (and probable loss of separation)
between aircraft in a time horizon extending up to 20 minutes.
(c) It is a flight data processing system designed to warn the
ATC of any situation where the minimum separation distance between aircraft is, or is predicted to be violated
within a time horizon around 2 minutes.
(d) It is an ACAS (airborne collision avoidance system) implementation.

Accepted Answer

D

Question 61

76. Which kind of collision avoidance manoeuvres can a TCAS RA
(resolution advisory) provide?
(a) vertical-only manoeuvres.
(b) horizontal-only manoeuvres.
(c) both horizontal and vertical manoeuvres.
(d) An RA does not provide any kind of collision avoidance

Accepted Answer

A

Question 62

77. Which of the following statements is true regarding TCAS?
(a) TCAS provides separation provision between aircraft.
(b) TCAS is a non-cooperative collision avoidance system.
(c) TCAS is a cooperative collision avoidance system.
(d) None of other answers is correct.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 63

78. Regarding figure 1, what does the yellow circle appearing in both
aircraft labels mean?
(a) RYR548 and AZA249 will not be sufficiently separated in
10 minutes.
(b) RYR548 and AZA249 will not be sufficiently separated in
5 minutes.
(c) RYR548 and AZA249 are not sufficiently separated.
(d) RYR548 and AZA249 will not be sufficiently separated if
the ATC gives the clearances to meet the letter of agreement of that sector.

Accepted Answer

D

Question 64

79. Regarding figure 1, how the ATC should react to this particular
situation?
(a) Giving a clearance to RYR548 to descend to FL220.
(b) Giving a clearance to AZA249 to climb to FL350.
(c) Vectoring AZA249 off-track and then giving a clearance to
climb to FL350.
(d) Vectoring RYR548 off-track and then giving a clearance to
descent to FL220.

Accepted Answer

D

ITA 2025 FINAL UPC

Modo Estudio

Modo Examen