ITA 2024 FINAL UPC

Question 1

1. Consider the Instrumental Approach Chart (IAC) Leon ILS
RWY23 annexed to this exam, the aircraft operator will publish for their crew a...
(a) decision altitude.
(b) minimum descent altitude.
(c) obstacle clearance altitude.
(d) All answers are correct.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 2

2. Consider the Instrumental Approach Chart (IAC) Leon ILS
RWY23, annexed to this exam the initial approach segment
that starts at JOCOL is...
(a) mainly composed by a VOR radial followed by a DME arc
and followed by another VOR radial.
(b) mainly composed by a racetrack procedure followed by a
tear-drop procedure.
(c) mainly composed by a racetrack procedure followed by a
DME arc.
(d) None of the other answers is correct.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 3

3. Consider the Instrumental Approach Chart (IAC) Leon ILS
RWY23 annexed to this exam, the intermediate approach segment is...
(a) a VOR radial.
(b) a NDB course.
(c) an ILS glide path segment.
(d) there is no intermediate segment in this procedure.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 4

4. Consider the same chart, the missed approach segment is...
(a) mainly composed by two VOR radials.
(b) mainly composed by a VOR radial and a DME arc.
(c) mainly composed by a dead-reckoning leg and a VOR radial.
(d) a tear-drop procedure

Accepted Answer

C

Question 5

5. Consider the Instrumental Approach Chart (IAC) Leon ILS
RWY23, annexed to this exam, the radionavigation aid labelled
as ILE is a:
(a) Localizer.
(b) VOR/DME.
(c) DME.
(d) Locator.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 6

6. Consider the Instrumental Approach Chart (IAC) Leon ILS
RWY23 annexed to this exam. Imagine an aircraft is instructed
to hold at EON after executing the missed approach procedure.
The aircraft will most probably enter the hold with...
(a) a tear-drop entry procedure.
(b) a direct entry procedure.
(c) an offset entry procedure.
(d) a parallel entry procedure.

Accepted Answer

B

Question 7

8. Consider the Instrumental Approach Chart (IAC) Leon ILS
RWY23 annexed to this exam. How is the MAPt defined?
(a) in this procedure, there is no MAPt.
(b) the MAPt is defined over the EON VOR/DME facility at
the MDA.
(c) the MAPt is defined at the intersection 228o/6.1NM of
EON VOR/DME and at the MDA.
(d) the MAPt is defined over the runway threshold and at the
DA.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 8

9. Why the cruising flight levels in China are given in meters and
not following the ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organisation) rule with flight levels defined in hundreds of feet?
(a) Because China does not belong to the ICAO.
(b) Because the ICAO can only issue recommendations, and
each state is sovereign to legislate as it wishes.
(c) Because a large part of the routes that fly over the Himalayas are in Chinese airspace and require being flown
with GPS and not barometric altimeters due to safety reasons.
(d) Because a large part of the routes that fly over the Himalayas are in Chinese airspace and flight levels in meters
are easier to calculate and communicate between ATC and
pilots.

Accepted Answer

B

Question 9

10. Airspace Management (ASM) is NOT responsible for:
(a) strategic civil-military coordination.
(b) designation of airspace types or classes.
(c) air traffic flow management.
(d) the design of the ATS route network.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 10

11. Airspace Management strongly depends on:
(a) the current configuration of sectors and airport runways.
(b) the current weather conditions.
(c) the communications, navigation and surveillance (CNS) infrastructure available.
(d) all the answers are correct.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 11

12. The ICAO odd/even flight level allocation scheme for cruising
altitudes guarantees...
(a) strategic separation between two IFR flights flying in opposite directions.
(b) strategic separation between two IFR flights flying in the
same direction.
(c) strategic separation between an IFR and a VFR flight flying in opposite directions.
(d) strategic separation between an IFR and a VFR flight flying in the same direction.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 12

13. The ATZ typically encompasses...
(a) the SIDs and STARs.
(b) the instrumental approach procedures.
(c) the visual airfield traffic pattern.
(d) all the other answers are correct.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 13

14. Which of the following controlled airspace zones is sized to accommodate, approximately, all the aircraft flying standard instrumental departures?
(a) The ATZ.
(b) The CTR.
(c) The TMA.
(d) The ATC.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 14

15. Which of the following controlled airspace zones is sized to accommodate, approximately, all the aircraft flying standard terminal arrival routes?
(a) The ATZ.
(b) The CTR.
(c) The TMA.
(d) The CTA.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 15

16. Which of the following events will not trigger an ATFCM regulation?
(a) Severe weather conditions in a busy airport.
(b) A serious accident on the runway of a busy airport.
(c) Flying over a remote area with no radar coverage.
(d) An extraordinary peak of air traffic demand due to some
special event (i.e., an important football match).

Accepted Answer

C

Question 16

17. Which of the following ATFCM initiatives is the most widely
used in Europe and in the U.S.A.?
(a) Ground holding.
(b) Ground stop.
(c) Pre-tactical re-routing.
(d) Miles in trail.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 17

18. Which of the following ATFCM initiatives is the most efficient
in terms of fuel consumption?
(a) Ground holding.
(b) Air holding.
(c) Level capping.
(d) All initiatives are similar in terms of fuel consumption.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 18

19. Which of the following ATFCM initiatives is the most efficient
in terms of minimising arrival delay?
(a) Ground holding.
(b) Air holding.
(c) Level capping.
(d) All initiatives are similar in terms of arrival delay.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 19

20. What is the main benefit of schedule (i.e., IATA) slots?
(a) some aerodrome capacity is lost in bad weather days.
(b) some aerodrome capacity is lost in good weather days.
(c) they reduce the probability of having ATFCM regulations.
(d) they increase the probability of having ATFCM regulations.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 20

21. An airspace sector in the middle of French airspace area has been
regulated and its maximum capacity has been set to 12 aircraft
per hour. The regulation has been issued at 10h00 UTC (universal time coordinated) and the computed assisted slot allocation
(CASA) algorithm has been executed to regulate the demand in
the concerned sector between 12h00 and 13h00 UTC. The Table
below contains the list of flights that are expected to cross that
sector during this period of time. For each flight, the table shows
its origin airport, the estimated take-off time (ETOT) and the
estimated time over (ETO) the concerned sector (all times areUTC). What would be the delay assigned by CASA to VLG123?
Flight Origin ETOT ETO
BAW111 London H. 11h10 12h01
VLG123 Milano 11h00 12h02
RYR666 Dublin 09h45 12h03
DLH77 Frankfurt 10h50 12h06
EZY543 Barcelona 10h07 12h07
UAE12 Dubai 07h20 12h21
AFR14 Paris Orly 12h05 12h23
UAE25 London 11h31 12h24
EZY741 Manchester 11h30 12h47
AZA999 Milano 12h30 12h48
IBE134 Moscow 10h15 12h51
(a) No delay
(b) 2 minutes.
(c) 3 minutes.
(d) 8 minutes.

Accepted Answer

D

Question 21

22. Regarding the same ATFCM regulation described in the question (and table) above. What will be the controlled take-off time
(CTOT) for EZY543?
(a) 10h20
(b) 10h25
(c) 12h20
(d) 12h25

Accepted Answer

B

Question 22

23. Regarding the same ATFCM regulation described in the question (and table) above. What will be the controlled take-off time
(CTOT) for EZY741?
(a) 11h30
(b) 11h42
(c) 12h47
(d) This aircraft is exempt of the regulation.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 23

24. Regarding the same ATFCM regulation described in the question (and table) above. What will be the controlled time-over
(CTO) for UAE25?
(a) 11h31
(b) 11h42
(c) 12h35
(d) This aircraft is exempt of the regulation.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 24

25. Regarding the same ATFCM regulation described in the question (and table) above. What will be the controlled time-over
(CTO) for IBE134?
(a) 11h31
(b) 12h55
(c) 13h00
(d) This aircraft is exempt of the regulation.

Accepted Answer

D

Question 25

26. Regarding the same ATFCM regulation described in the question (and table) above. What would be a valid take-off time for
DHL77 from an ATFCM point of view?
(a) 10h50
(b) 10h52
(c) 11h02
(d) 11h10

Accepted Answer

C

Question 26

27. Regarding the same ATFCM regulation described in the question
(and table) above. If the first slot (slot #1) is given at 12h00,
which aircraft will take slot #5?
(a) This slot will not be used by any aircraft.
(b) AFR14.
(c) UAE12.
(d) DLH77.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 27

28. Regarding the same ATFCM regulation described in the question
(and table) above. If the first slot (slot #1) is given at 12h00,
which aircraft will take slot #9?
(a) This slot will not be used by any aircraft.
(b) UAE25.
(c) EZY741.
(d) AZA999.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 28

29. Noise-optimal departures (i.e. minimising noise exposure over
the population) typically require more fuel since the aircraft
might have to climb at not optimal speeds and/or fly longer
routes to avoid certain populated areas. This is a illustrative
example of an ATM trade-off, or interdependency, between:
(a) flight efficiency and environmental impact.
(b) flight efficiency and safety.
(c) capacity and safety.
(d) capacity and flight efficiency.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 29

30. How can we measure capacity in an airport?
(a) Counting the hourly number of IFR movements (departures and arrivals) under IMC.
(b) Counting the percent of flights departing or arriving ontime.
(c) Counting the number of runways of the airport.
(d) All the other answers are correct.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 30

31. Which of the following indicators could be representative to measure safety in the en-route phase?
(a) The number of integrity looses of the navigation system.
(b) The number of incidents involving direct unlawful interference to aircraft (i.e., bomb threat, hijack, GPS jamming,...).
(c) The number of coordinations, in a given period of time,
between air traffic controllers of adjacent sectors.
(d) The distance between the cruise altitude and the highest
obstacle in the en-route phase.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 31

32. Imagine an IFR flight inside an airspace of class ”C”. The pilot
decides to go-around and execute the missed approach procedure.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The pilot always needs a clearance from ATC before the
go-around can be initiated.
(b) The pilot can initiate the go-around without the need to
receive a clearance from ATC only in the case of having a
TCAS resolution advisory or a TAWS alert.
(c) The pilot can always initiate the go-around without the
need to receive a clearance from ATC.
(d) The pilot can always initiate the go-around without the
need to receive a clearance from ATC, but should immediately go in a holding pattern to then ask a clearance to
initiate the missed approach procedure.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 32

33. Which part of the following radiotelephony message shall be repeated by the Iberia pilot? Iberia 6165 heavy, Boston Tower.
Caution wake turbulence following a heavy Airbus A330 on a 2
mile final. Wind 240 at 9 kt. Cleared to land runway 27.
(a) Cleared to land runway 27.
(b) Caution wake turbulence following a heavy Airbus A330
on a 2 mile final.
(c) Wind 240 at 9 kt. Cleared to land runway 27.
(d) The entire message shall always be repeated.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 33

34. What is the international radiotelephony urgency signal for aviation?
(a) The word MayDay.
(b) The word MayDay repeated three times.
(c) The word Pan-Pan.
(d) The word Pan-Pan repeated three times.

Accepted Answer

D

Question 34

35. An air traffic controller issues the following radiotelephony message: Echo Charlie Uniform Papa Charlie, traffic at your 10
o’clock position, Cessna 172 westbound at 4 miles, 300 ft below.
Which of the following answers is correct?
(a) The message is a separation instruction to prevent a midair collision.
(b) It is a distress signal message.
(c) It is a collision hazard flight information message.
(d) It is a urgency signal message.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 35

36. A VFR flight is flying inside an airspace of class E. The air traffic
controller is responsible to separate it from:
(a) all other IFR flights.
(b) all other VFR flights.
(c) all other VFR and IFR flights.
(d) the controller has no separation responsibility with VFR
flights in airspace class E.

Accepted Answer

D

Question 36

37. Imagine an approach controller in a TMA sector of class ”D”.
EC-DRV is a flight under VFR, while ICC01 is a flight under
IFR. ICC01 is the only flight under IFR at that moment in that
sector. Which of the following radiotelephony messages is most
likely coming from the air traffic controller?
(a) EC-DRV due to traffic, turn heading two two zero.
(b) Cartografic 01 due to traffic, turn heading two two zero.
(c) EC-DRV report at 5 miles from SLL VOR.
(d) Cartografic 01 report at 5 miles from SLL VOR.

Accepted Answer

D

Question 37

38. Imagine you are providing Air Traffic Control services within a
sector in the middle of the ocean, with NO radar coverage and no
ADS information. How could you provide such services in these
conditions?
(a) Without radar coverage or ADS information, Air Traffic
Control services cannot be provided.
(b) By means of position reports and flight plan information.
(c) By means of position reports, flight plan information and
transponder codes.
(d) By means of position reports, flight plan information and
visual acquisition of the aircraft.

Accepted Answer

B

Question 38

39. Who is the responsible to issue air traffic control clearances?
(a) The strategic controller
(b) The tactical controller.
(c) The planner controller.
(d) The ATC supervisor.

Accepted Answer

B

Question 39

40. In the context of ATC, what is the exit flight level (XFL)?
(a) The upper flight level of an ATS sector.
(b) The flight level an aircraft should have been cleared before
being transferred from one ATS sector to the next one.
(c) The flight level the altimeter setting is changed from QNH
to STD.
(d) The flight level the altimeter setting is changed from STD
to QNH.

Accepted Answer

B

Question 40

41. An aircraft has just landed at a major airport and has vacated
the runway. In order to reach its gate at the terminal, an active
runway needs to be crossed. Which ATC dependency is responsible to deliver the needed clearance to cross this runway?
(a) The tower control.
(b) The delivery control.
(c) The ground control.
(d) The approach control.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 41

42. Which of the following elements represent a security issue for
CPDLC (controller-pilot data-link communications)?
(a) data packet losses in the CPDLC data-link transmission.
(b) integrity losses in the aircraft navigation system.
(c) GPS jamming (i.e., emitting radio signals at the same frequency as the GPS-enabled device to deliberately create
interference).
(d) CPDLC message spoofing (i.e., sending CPDLC messages
with a fake sender address or callsign).

Accepted Answer

D

Question 42

43. Which of the following elements represent a safety issue for
CPDLC (controller-pilot data-link communications)?
(a) data packet losses in the CPDLC data-link transmission.
(b) integrity losses in the aircraft navigation system.
(c) GPS jamming (i.e., emitting radio signals at the same frequency as the GPS-enabled device to deliberately create
interference).
(d) CPDLC message spoofing (i.e., sending CPDLC messages
with a fake sender address or callsign).

Accepted Answer

A

Question 43

44. Which of the following options is correct, when talking about an
ILS?
(a) the glideslope is the ground-based system (transmitter)
and the localiser is the on-board system (receiver).
(b) the localiser is the ground-based system (transmitter) and
the transponder is the on-board system (receiver).
(c) the localiser and the glideslope are ground-based systems
(transmitters) that send the same redundant navigation
signal.
(d) the localiser and the glideslope are ground-based systems
(transmitters) that send different navigation signals for different purposes.

Accepted Answer

D

Question 44

45. The main difference between a VOR and an NDB is that...
(a) the VOR emits with much more signal power than the
NDB.
(b) the NDB emits with much more signal power than the
VOR.
(c) with an NDB the pilot only knows a relative bearing to
the NDB station, while with the VOR the pilot knows the
position of the aircraft.
(d) with an NDB the pilot only knows a relative bearing to the
NDB station, while with the VOR the pilot has directional
information (relative to the magnetic North) with respect
to the VOR station.

Accepted Answer

D

Question 45

46. For each satellite in sight i, the GPS receiver builds a system of
equations with Ri =
p
(xi − x)
2 + (yi − y)
2 + (zi − z)
2 + c∆t;
where Ri is the pseudorange between the receiver and satellite
i; (x, y, z) are the coordinates of the GPS receiver; (xi, yi, zi)
are the coordinates of the satellite i; c is the speed of light; and
∆t is the receiver clock bias (or error). Which of the following
statements is correct?
(a) Ri and ∆t are measured by the GPS receiver; orbital information to compute (xi, yi, zi) is transmitted in the navigation message of satellite i; and (x, y, z) are unknowns of
the system.
(b) Ri are measured by the GPS receiver; orbital information
to compute (xi, yi, zi) is transmitted in the navigation message of satellite i; and (x, y, z) and ∆t are unknowns of the
system.
(c) (xi, yi, zi) are measured by the GPS receiver; orbital information to compute Ri is transmitted in the navigation
message of satellite i; and (x, y, z) and ∆t are unknowns of
the system.
(d) (xi, yi, zi) are measured by the GPS receiver; orbital information to compute (x, y, z) and ∆t is transmitted in the
navigation message of satellite i; and Ri are unknowns of
the system.

Accepted Answer

B

Question 46

47. ”Who” actually computes a GPS position?
(a) The receiver alone, using its own measurements and the
information sent by, at least, four GPS satellites.
(b) At least four GPS satellites, using some information sent
by the receiver. Once computed the position is downlinked
to the receiver.
(c) The GPS ground control station, using the information
sent by the receiver via the GPS satellites that are visible
to the receiver.
(d) The receiver and at least 4 GPS satellites: the receiver
computes the 3D coordinates and the satellites compute
the different time stamps, which are then dowlinked to the
receiver.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 47

48. The ground-based augmentation system (GBAS) working principle is based on:
(a) an additional satellite that broadcasts the GPS errors.
(b) the receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM)
principle.
(c) the similarity of the errors for receivers located ”not far”
from each other.
(d) None of the other answers is correct.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 48

49. Regarding the Satellite Based Augmentation System (SBAS)...
(a) It is a system that supports a wide-area or regional augmentation by using additional satellite broadcast messages.
(b) It is a system commonly composed of multiple ground receiving stations, located at accurately-surveyed points.
(c) It is a system where the ground stations take measurements of one or more GPS satellite signals and other environmental factors which may impact the signal received
by the users.
(d) All the answers are correct.

Accepted Answer

D

Question 49

50. On December 25th 2024 an Azerbaijan Airlines Embraer ERJ190 performing a flight from Baku (Azerbaijan) to Grozny (Russia) attempted an emergency landing on Aktau’s runway 11 and
impacted ground, caughting fire. Severe GPS jamming and
spoofing activity was reported in the region. Because of this
activity:
(a) The flight track from FlightRadar24 website was not reliable, since it is based on ADS-B messages sent by the
aircraft.
(b) ATC could not rely on secondary radar positions.
(c) ATC could not rely on primary radar positions.
(d) All answers are correct

Accepted Answer

A

Question 50

51. Imagine an aircraft flying without transponder. This aircraft...
(a) Can only be detected with a primary surveillance radar.
(b) Can only be detected with a secondary surveillance radar.
(c) Can only be detected with the usage of primary and a secondary surveillance radar at the same time.
(d) Cannot be detected.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 51

52. In case of no wind...
(a) heading and track angles are the same.
(b) the true airspeed and de ground speed are not the same.
(c) The course and bearing angles are the same.
(d) All answers are correct.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 52

53. The navigation process by which a navigator calculates its current position by using a previously determined position and
known or estimated speeds over an elapsed time and course is
known as:
(a) Instrumental Flight Rules (IFR) navigation.
(b) Special Visual Flight Rules (SVFR) navigation.
(c) dead reckoning.
(d) conventional navigation.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 53

54. The airfield traffic pattern leg by which an aircraft flies towards
the landing runway is called:
(a) final.
(b) crosswind.
(c) downwind.
(d) upwind.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 54

55. Imagine a twin engine aircraft departing in IMC from a controlled airport. Few seconds after take-off, it hits birds, causing
a fire in one of the engines and loosing all of its power. In this
situation, the navigate function of the aircraft crew would be:
(a) to check if there is a contingency departure published for
that airport and execute it.
(b) to safely control the aircraft trajectory with the loss of
power and to manage to extinguish the fire and shut down
the engine.
(c) to send a distress message to the air traffic control.
(d) to revert to manual control and visual flight to safely land
as soon as possible

Accepted Answer

A

Question 55

56. An aircraft is flying a Standard Instrumental Departure (SID)
procedure. We can affirm that:
(a) there are Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC).
(b) there are Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC).
(c) a flight plan has been submitted before the flight.
(d) the flight is at the climbing phase.

Accepted Answer

1, 1, 1, 1

Question 56

57. Which of the following methods shall be used to define a VFR
reporting point?
(a) Overflying a radionavigation facility.
(b) Some timing after overflying a radionavigation facility.
(c) The intersection of a VOR radial and a NDB course.
(d) An significant landmark that can be easily seen from the
cockpit.

Accepted Answer

D

Question 57

58. In which situation the effect of the wind will have a bigger impact
on the actual trajectory flown by an aircraft?
(a) when flying a dead reckoning leg.
(b) when flying an NDB course.
(c) when flying a VOR radial.
(d) when flying a DME arc.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 58

59. Besides providing flight guidance in instrument meteorological
conditions (IMC), what is the main the main purpose of SIDs
and STARs?
(a) In order to have the infrastructure to properly provide
alert, flight information and separation services to aircraft
in terminal airspace.
(b) In order to enhance flight efficiency with more direct routes
and/or optimised climbs and descents.
(c) In order to provide some strategic separation on air traffic
flows and helping, in this way, to manage traffic.
(d) To provide flight guidance to visual flight rules (VFR) traffic as well in congested terminal airspace.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 59

60. In a conventional IFR holding, which leg is typically a guided
leg?
(a) The outbound leg.
(b) The inbound leg.
(c) Both inbound and the outbound legs are always guided.
(d) In an IFR holding there are no guided legs.

Accepted Answer

B

Question 60

61. Which of the following sequence is correct for a visual approach
procedure following a standard airfield traffic pattern?
(a) base, upwind and final.
(b) base, downwind and final.
(c) upwind, base and final.
(d) downwind, base and final.

Accepted Answer

D

Question 61

62. A circling to approach...
(a) is the same than a non-precision approach.
(b) shall be executed when the ILS glide slope is not available.
(c) shall be executed when the aerodrome visibility is below
the minimum visibility for a straight-in approach.
(d) shall be executed when the final approach segment has a
miss-alignment that exceeds a certain limit.

Accepted Answer

D

Question 62

63. An ILS approach is generally a:
(a) Straight-in approach and a precision approach.
(b) Straight-in approach and a non precision approach.
(c) Circling to approach and a precision approach.
(d) Circling to approach and a non precision approach.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 63

64. Regarding an approach procedure, which of the following items
is a responsibility of the aircraft operator
(a) to compute the minimum descent altitude or decision altitude.
(b) to compute the obstacle clearance altitude.
(c) to compute the minimum safety distance with other conflicting procedures in the same area.
(d) all other answers are correct.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 64

65. The MDA...
(a) is the altitude that once reached the pilot must decide
whether to continue or abort a non-precision approach.
(b) is the minimum altitude to overfly the runway threshold,
just before landing.
(c) is the minimum altitude for circling approaches, while the
DA is the minimum altitude for straight-in approaches.
(d) None of the other answers are correct.

Accepted Answer

D

ITA 2024 FINAL UPC

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